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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 10:49

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

How do you explain BYD selling more battery electric vehicles than Tesla in Europe for the first time in April?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

My boyfriend always verbally abuse me and makes me cry. If I try to tell him how hurt I was, he says to me he loves me and can't hurt me but always abuse me. Why?

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Which album is your favorite that's now 50 years old (from 1975), and what's the best song on the album?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.